Pharmacokinetics :Few More questions


Pharmacokinetics : Few questions



You Guys Must be wondering, Why I am not posting all questions at once . Actually , Basic Idea  is to make you guys study every day at least 2-3 hours .This is my formula , if you  spent about 2-3 hours every day ,  You will pass this exam for sure  . Just Find out the answers for these questions and leave a comment  Once again please  confirm the answers with a authentic source

1. Correct statements about bioavailability include:
A. pertains to the rate and extent of drug absorption
B. for two dosage forms of a drug to be considered equally
bioavailable, the measured AUC for each drug must be equal
C. for two dosage forms of a drug to be therapeutically equivalent
They must be equally bioavailable
D. equally bioavailable dosage forms may not necessarily be
Bioequivalent
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All are correct
 correct answer: 4
2. Correct statements pertaining to first-order elimination kinetics include:
A. a constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit of time
B. this pattern of drug elimination is most likely when elimination
Pathways are saturated
C. clearance will vary as blood concentrations change
D. for drugs following this elimination pattern, doubling the rate of
Administration will yield a doubling of serum or plasma
Concentration at steady-state
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All are correct
answer: 5 category
3. Correct statements pertaining to protein-binding include:
A. acidic drugs are most likely to be bound to albumin
B. the degree to which a drug is protein-bound in plasma will affect
Its apparent volume of distribution
C. basic drugs are most likely to be bound to alpha 1-acid
Glycoprotein
D. for highly protein-bound drugs, decreasing the extent of
Protein-binding in plasma will enhance the rate of glomerular
Filtration
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All are Correct
 answer: 3 category: Pharmacokinetics
4. Correct statements pertaining to elimination half-life include:
A. elimination half-life always increases as clearance decreases
B. knowledge of a drug's elimination half-life allows one to estimate
The time necessary for steady-state to be reached after starting
Therapy
C. for drugs that follow first-order elimination kinetics, increasing
Drug dosage will increase the elimination half-life
D. elimination half-life is the time required for the amount of drug
In the body to be reduced by 50%
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All are correct
Answer: 1
5. Phase II (synthetic) reactions include:
A. glucuronidation
B. N-acetylation
C. O-methylation
D. hydrolysis
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All are correct
answer: 4
6. Metabolic pathways which are subject to induction and inhibition by some
Drugs include:
A. sulfate conjugation
B. acetylating
C. glycine conjugation
D. oxidation
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All are correct
 answer: 5
7. Some drugs are hepatic ally metabolized and possess a high extraction ratio.
Correct statements concerning these drugs include:
A. these drugs are subject to extensive first-pass metabolism
B. inducing the hepatic microtonal enzyme system is not likely to
Alter clearance substantially
C. clearance of these drugs is likely to be reduced in patients with
Congestive heart failure
D. administration of these drugs parent rally will increase
Bioavailability
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All are correct
answer: 2
8. J.B. is 55 KG, 38-year-old male smoker with acute exacerbation of COPD who is
started on theophylline in the ER. A loading dose of 300 mg is administered
over 30 minutes. Blood samples obtained 3 hours and 6 hours after the loading
dose revealed serum concentrations of 12.0 mg/L and 8.1 mg/L, respectively.
The elimination half-life of theophylline in this patient is:
1. 0.53 hours
2. 5.33 hours
3. 3.50 hours
4. 6.00 hours
5. 8.03 hours
Answer: 4
9. Gentamicin pharmacokinetics can be described using a 1 compartment model,
undergoes first order metabolism, and is entirely cleared from the body
unchanged by the kidneys. If a patient with a creatine clearance of 30 ml/min
is given gentamicin, correct statements include:
1. compared to an identical person with normal renal function (125 ml/min)
this patient's loading dose should be reduced by 75%
2. if this patient receives the same loading dose as an identical person
with normal renal function, this patient's blood concentration will be
approximately 4 times higher
3. a loading dose should not be given to individuals who will clear a drug
from their body more slowly than a normal population
4. this patient should receive the same loading dose of gentamicin as an
Individual with normal renal function
Answer: 1
10. Correct statements pertaining to elimination half-life include:
A. if total body clearance of drug A remains constant and the volume
of drug A distribution is doubled, elimination half-life is
Increased
B. if total body clearance of drug A is doubled and drug A volume of
Distribution remains constant, elimination half-life is reduced
C. if a reduction in total body clearance of drug A is accompanied by
a corresponding reduction in drug A volume of distribution,
Elimination half-life will remain unchanged
D. if a reduction in total body clearance of drug A is accompanied by
an increase in drug A volume of distribution, elimination half-
life will remain unchanged
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All are correct
Answer 3


Few More questions 2

Please Make sure that these questions are practice purpose only and  check answers with authenticated sources



Few More questions  2


1. Proposed cellular mechanisms of theophylline's action include:
A. translocation of intracellular calcium
B. those mediated by increasing accumulation of intracellular cyclic AMP
C. those mediated by blockade of receptors for adenosine
D. those mediated by xanthine oxidase inhibition
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
Answer: 2 
2. Drugs that may decrease theophylline clearance include:
A. cimetidinE
B. ranitidine
C. ciprofloxacin
D. phenytoin
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
 answer: 5
3. Theophylline clearance may be reduced by:
1. phenobarbital
2. warfarin
3. tobacco smoking
4. phenytoin
5. ciprofloxacin
 answer: 5 
4. Factors which are important to consider in selecting a maintenance dose of
theophylline in a patient include all of the following EXCEPT:
1. smoking history
2. concomitant medication administration
3. presence of congestive heart failure or cor pulmonale
4. presence of hepatic failure
5. presence of renal insufficiency
answer: 5 
5. Manifestations of theophylline toxicity may include all of the following
EXCEPT:
1. tremors
2. seizures
3. tachyarrhythmias
4. vomiting
5. hyperkalemia
answer: 2
6. In the case of an oral overdose of theophylline, clearance may be enhanced by:
1. induction of emesis
2. oral pulse dose charcoal
3. administration of cimetidine
4. lavage of nasogastric contents
5. forced diuresis
answer: 4 
7. Regarding its actions, cromolyn is best described as:
1. bronchodilator
2. anticholinergic
3. beta agonist
4. inhibitor of mast cell degranulation
5. glucocorticoid
Answer: 4 
8. Beta-2 selective adrenergic agonists include all EXCEPT:
1. terbutaline
2. albuterol
3. metaproterenol
4. isoproterenol
5. pirbuterol
Answer: 5 
9. Adverse effects of beta-2 adrenergic bronchodilators include all of the
following EXCEPT:
1. nervousness
2. headache
3. tachycardia
4. tremulousness
5. lethargy
Answer: 4 
10. Which of the following work through cholinergic receptor antagonism?
1. isoetharine
2. cromolyn
3. ephedrine
4. ipratropium
5. salmeterol
Answer: 1 
11. Which of the following pharmacologic agents antagonize adenosine?
1. theophylline
2. glucocorticoids
3. cromolyn sodium
4. propranolol
5. terbutaline
Answer: 2 
12. Theophylline, ethacrynic acid, and furosemide:
1. interfere with active renal tubular reabsorption of sodium
2. increase urine volume
3. are not effective in the treatment of congestive heart failure
4. decrease excretion of sodium in the uriNE
5. may precipitate in renal tubules and cause acute angiospastic necrosis
Answer: 4
13. An 81-year-old female with arteriosclerotic heart disease and pulmonary
emphysema was found to have significant bronchospasm. Her physician prescribed
theophylline 400 mg every 12 hours. All of the following toxicities may be
observed EXCEPT:
1. cardiac arrhythmias
2. nausea and vomiting
3. agitation
4. sodium and water retention
5. tremulousness
Answer: 5 
14. When comparing the relative adrenergic effects of the following drugs, the one
which would have the least 2 (bronchodilatation) effect at normal doses is:
1. terbutaline
2. epinephrine
3. isoproterenol
4. isoetharine
5. norepinephrine

Some Question Just for practice

Hi Folks ! Here is my another  post  with another important clue . Its practice . I would recommend you to do practice the question answers as much as you can . Study and practice . This will help you in examination hall , where most of the students complains   about not enough time  I posting some questions here , these are just for practice  and do no think. Please study these 30 question and post your answers



Thanks !

1.      which of the following functional groups are tertiary hydroxyl group

A.    ..
B.     ..
C.    ..
D.    ..
E.     ..

2.      which of the following groups have geometrical isomers:

A.    Hexane and cyclohexane
B.     Pentane and pentene
C.    Butene and 2-Butene
D.    Benzene and hexane
E.     Non of the above

3.      Which of the following statements concerning cytochrome enzyme are CORRECT?

                                                 I.      The CYP7, CYP11, CYP27 are cytochrome enzyme responsible for cholesterol metabolism.
                                              II.      CYP3A is most common metabolizing enzyme in the body.
                                           III.      CYP3A does phase I reductive reactions.

A.    I Only
B.     III Only
C.    I and II Only
D.    II And III Only
E.     All Of the above

4.      The following statements are CORRECT about a muscarinic antagonist Atropine :

A.    Atropine structure contain piperidine a pyridines rings.
B.     Piperidine and pyrrolidine
C.    Pirmidine and pyrrolidine
D.    Quasi ring structure but not tertiary amine
E.     Pyridine and Quasi rings structure.

5.      If a structure of drug contain 3 sterogenic centers “chiral centers”, their will be how many isomers possible for this structure?

A.    8
B.     21
C.    3
D.    2
E.     12

6.      1-propanol and 2-propanol they are:

A.    Conformational Isomer
B.     Geometric Isomer
C.    Constitutional Isomer
D.    Diasteroisomers Isomer
E.     Enatiomers Isomer


7.      hexane and 2-methyl pentane are:

A.    Conformational Isomer
B.     Geometric Isomer
C.    Constitutional Isomer
D.    Diasteroisomers Isomer
E.     Enatiomers Isomer

8.      All the following statements are CORRECT about Enatiomers EXCEPT:

A.    Enatiomers are optical isomers that are mirror images of another
B.     Enatiomers are rotate pan of polarized light in clockwise direction are know as dextrorotatory (D) or (+)
C.    Enatiomers have identical physical and chemical properties
D.    Enatiomers are rotate plan polarized light in anticlockwise direction are know as levorotatory.
E.     100% mixture of (D) or (L) Enatiomers is called racemic mixture.

9.      All of the following statements are CORRECT about Diasteroisomers EXCEPT:

A.    Diasteroisomers are neither mirror image no superimposible images
B.     Diasteroisomers must contain at least two chiral centers
C.    Diasteroisomers differ in properties such as solubility, volatility and melting point
D.    Diasteroisomers contain different physical and chemical properties
E.     Diasteroisomers contain non superimposible mirror images


10.  Conversion of tetracycline to 4-epi tetracycline process in known as:
A.    Isomerization
B.     Epimerization
C.    Conversion
D.    Substitution
E.     Chemical reaction


11.  D(+) Lactic acid and L (-) Lactic acid are:

A.    Diasteroisomers
B.     Enatiomers
C.    Constitutional isomers
D.    Geometrical isomers
E.     Stereoisomer

12.  Result of restriction around double bond a result in the following isomers:

A.    Diasteroisomers
B.     Enatiomers
C.    Constitutional isomers
D.    Conformational isomers
E.     Geometrical isomers

13.  Metabolic reactions that may be affected by a protein deficiency diet include:

                                      I.      Oxidative Reaction
                                   II.      Hydrolysis
                                III.      Glycine Conjugation

A.    I Only
B.     III Only
C.    I and II Only
D.    II And III Only
E.     All Of the above

14.  In amino acid conjugation which of the following reactions are involved:

A.    Amino acid + Alcohol
B.     Amino acid + Amino acid
C.    Amino acid + Glycine
D.    Glycine + Alcohol
E.     Amino Acid + Glutamine

15.  Which is strongest Base:
A.    ----
B.     ----
C.    ----
D.    ---
E.     ---

16.  CYT P450 is :

A.    Enzyme
B.     Vitamin
C.    Neurotransmitter
D.    Catalyst
E.     Amino acid

17.  Where is the hydrolysis occur:
A.   
B.    
C.   
D.   
E.    

18.  Where is the hydrolysis occur:

A.    E
B.     E
C.    E
D.    e
E.     E

19.  All the following are metabolic enzymes EXCEPT:

A.    CYP 450
B.     CYP 3A4
C.    CYP 0
D.    CYP 1A4
E.     CYP 2A1

20.  All the following are cytochrome enzymes metabolize drug xenobiotics (Biological Product) EXCEPT:

A.    CYP 450
B.     CYP 3A4
C.    CYP 17
D.    CYP 1A4
E.     CYP 2A1

21.  Antidepressants are metabolized by:

A.    CYP 450 And CYP 1A2
B.     CYP 3A4 And CYP 1A2
C.    CYP 2D6 And CYP 1A2
D.    CYP 1A4 And CYP 1A2
E.     CYP 2A1 And CYP 1A2

22.  Statins are metabolized by:

A.    CYP 17
B.     CYP 1A2
C.    CYP 3A
D.    CYP 2A1
E.     CYP 450

23.  Benzodiazepines Are metabolized be:

A.    CYP 17
B.     CYP 1A2
C.    CYP 3A
D.    CYP 2A1
E.     CYP 450

24.  Grapefruit juice inhibit the following enzyme:

A.    CYP 17
B.     CYP 1A2
C.    CYP 3A4
D.    CYP 2A1
E.     CYP 450



25.  Smoking induces the following Cytochrome enzyme:

A.    CYP 17
B.     CYP 1A2
C.    CYP 3A
D.    CYP 2A1
E.     CYP 450

26.  Which enzyme does glucourdiation reaction:

A.    UDPGA
B.     ….
C.    ….
D.    ….
E.     ….



27.  What characteristics of an organic compound allow it to undergo conjugation with glutathione?

A.    Electrophilic functional groups
B.    
C.   
D.   
E.    

28.  Amino acids conjugation involve the following group:

A.    Amino acid and glycin
B.     Amino acid and glutamine
C.    Amino acid
D.    Activated amino acid
E.     Amino acid and glutamine

29.  Glutamine Conjugation very important in preventing toxicity of variety of drugs, toxic products are excreted as:

A.    S-adonozyl transferase
B.      Glutamic acid
C.    Mercaptoric acid
D.    Amino acid
E.     Sulfadryl groups

30.  which of the following statements about drugs metabolism correct:

A.    drug metabolizing enzyme are found only in liver
B.     all metabolites are pharmacologically inactive
C.    phase I metabolite can cross cell membrane
D.    all drugs are catalyzed by cytochrome
E.     commonly one metabolite is excreted for each drug administered