practice to pass fpgee and pebc

 correct answer: 5 
  • 1. Imipenem is a beta-lactam antibiotic which is neither a penicillin nor a
cephalosporin. Correct statements regarding imipenem include:
A. it covers an extremely broad spectrum of microorganisms
B. it is very active against many gram negative rods
C. resistant pseudomonas may emerge during treatment
D. it should not be given to patients having a history of allergic
reactions to penicillin
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
Correct Answer 1
  • 2. Which of the following drugs are generally considered to be bactericidal in

vitro?
A. cephalosporins
B. penicillins
C. aminoglycosides
D. clindamycin
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
 correct answer: 5 
  • 3. Which of the following are true regarding cephalosporins?

A. "third generation" cephalosporins are generally more active
against gram-negative organisms
B. cephalosporins may depress beta-lactamase in certain organisms
(Enterobacter, pseudomonas, serratia) causing production of the
enzyme to increase markedly
C. the enzyme in part B above binds to the cephalosporin
D. enterococcus is never reliably sensitive to any available
cephalosporin
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

Item Number: 10229 correct answer: 1 category: Antimicrobials
  • 5. Some potential barriers to successful treatment of an abscess-cavitary

infection with an aminoglycoside include:
A. inactivation of aminoglycoside by an acidic medium
B. binding of the drug by pus
C. decreased ability of the drug to penetrate the abscess because of
poor vascularity
D. inactivation of aminoglycoside by alkaline medium
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
Item Number: 10247 correct answer: 3 category: Antimicrobials
  • 6. The drug of choice for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is:

1. oxacillin
2. gentamicin
3. vancomycin
4. piperacillin
5. None of the above
Item Number: 10263 correct answer: 5 category: Antimicrobials
  • 7. Cefazolin is generally preferred among the first-generation cephalosporins,

because it:
A. has a favorable pharmacokinetic profile
B. has a longer half-life than comparable drugs
C. may be dosed every 8 hours
D. costs less for a hospital to utilize, since it may be given less
frequently than comparable drugs
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

Item Number: 10232 correct answer: 5 category: Antimicrobial
  • 9. Prophylactic antibiotics in the United States are associated with:

A. increased incidence of infections in some cases
B. decreased incidence of infections in some cases
C. increased cost in some cases
D. decreased cost in some cases
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
Item Number: 10249 correct answer: 1 category: Antimicrobials
  • 10. Penicillin:

A. has a half-life of about 30 minutes
B. is primarily excreted renally
C. has an average duration of about 26 days when administered in the
benzathine form
D. readily enters CSF when meninges are normal
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
Item Number: 10265 correct answer: 3 category: Antimicrobials
  • 11. Patients having a history of a severe, immediate reaction to penicillin:

A. may be given a cephalosporin without concern
B. have a definite risk of reaction to any cephalosporin
C. have a low risk of having a reaction to a broad spectrum
antipseudomonal penicillin
D. have a high risk of hypersensitivity to a broad spectrum anti-
pseudomonal penicillin
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
Item Number: 10290 correct answer: 1 category: Antimicrobials
  • 12. Chloramphenicol is associated with:

A. pancytopenia
B. gray-baby syndrome
C. reversible erythroid-suppression of bone marrow
D. renal failure
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
Item Number: 10295 correct answer: 5 category: Antimicrobials
  • 13. Vancomycin:

A. is a treatment for clostridium difficile-induced diarrhea
B. is useful in treating methicillin-resistant staphylococci
C. is potentially ototoxic
D. requires a dosage adjustment when administered to patients with
impaired renal function
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
Item Number: 10238 correct answer: 5 category: Antimicrobials
  • 14. Cavalier use of antibiotics in the hospital setting may be associated with:

A. increased cost
B. increased toxicity
C. alteration of hospital flora
D. increased incidence of infections
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
Item Number: 10254 correct answer: 2 category: Antimicrobials
  • 15. The drug of choice for Streptococcus pneumonia (pneumococcus) in a patient

with no drug allergies is:
1. erythromycin
2. penicillin
3. vancomycin
4. ceftriaxone
5. gentamicin
Item Number: 10272 correct answer: 5 category: Antimicrobials
  • 16. Aminoglycosides are:

A. excreted renally
B. bactericidal
C. potentially toxic to the auditory and vestibular portions of the
eighth cranial nerve
D. potentially nephrotoxic
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,C
4. D only
5. All of the above
Item Number: 10291 correct answer: 1 category: Antimicrobials
  • 17. Clindamycin is:

A. associated with diarrhea
B. active against anaerobes
C. active against some gram-positive organisms
D. active against some gram-negative organisms
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
Item Number: 10303 correct answer: 5 category: Antimicrobials
  • 18. Amphotericin B is a very useful agent for treating fungal infections. Correct

statements regarding amphotericin include:
A. it is both hydrophilic and lipophilic
B. it binds to sterols in the fungal cell membrane
C. a test dose should be administered before treatment begins
D. nephrotoxicity may occur
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
Item Number: 10242 correct answer: 5 category: Antimicrobials
  • 19. Sulfonamides:

A. are competitive antagonists of PABA, and thereby decrease
bacterial utilization of para-aminobenzoic acid in the synthesis
of folic acid
B. do not affect mammalian cells, since they require pre-formed folic
acid
C. are synergistic with trimethoprim, which inhibits dihydrofolate
reductase (which reduces dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate)
D. can be antagonized by PABA
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
Item Number: 10255 correct answer: 5 category: Antimicrobials
  • 20. Circumstances associated with allergy to penicillins may include:

A. maculopapular or urticarial rash
B. anaphylaxis
C. anaphylactic reaction to penicillin skin-tests
D. exposure to penicillins in food
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
Item Number: 10276 correct answer: 5 category: Antimicrobials
  • 21. Aminoglycosides:

A. must be dosed on the basis of renal function
B. are primarily active against gram-negative aerobes
C. are not active against anaerobes
D. penicillin may be synergistic against enterococcus
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

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More Questions to practice


More Practice Questions  


In Pharmacy Exams either it is pharmacy college  exams or professional  bodies exams accuracy and speed is very important .Along with right answers you have to make sure that you are not wasting your time on questions, about which you have no clue . So Just jump to next, so that you are not running out of time. At the end, again I would suggest that practice these questions and compare your answers with some authenticated sources.Another Important thing is that study all other options , why they can not be answers .You will build  your knowledge base

Answer: 3
 1. Which of the following substances has its major activity as a saline cathartic ?
1. Sodium bicarbonate
2. Methylcellulose
3. Sodium phosphate
4. Castor oil
5. Mineral oil
Answer: 4
2. The correct statement regarding sucralfate:
1. Pharmacologic action is to reduce gastric acid secretion by antagonizing Gatrin
2. Enhances N+-K+ ATPase
3. Antagonizes acetylcholine
4. Most common side effects is constipation
5. Increases gastric motility
Answer: 4
3. Correct statement regarding metoclopramide:
1. Central nervous system dopamine receptor agonist
2. Peripheral blockage of acetylcholine at muscarinic synapse
3. Decreases lower esophageal sphincter pressure
4. Adverse effects include dystonic or extrapyramidal effects
5. Increases motility of colon
Answer: 5
4. In general, mechanisms of laxation include:
1. Adding bulk to the stool
2. Increasing peristaltic activity
3. Emulsifying aqueous and fatty substances with stool
4. Lubricating the passage of stool
5. All of the above

Answer: 1
5. Appropriate indications for and/or uses of laxatives include:
A. prevent straining at the stool in patients with cardiovascular disease
B. bulk forming agents for diverticular disease
C. treatment of drug overdose
D. to induce daily bowel movements in normal healthy individuals
1. A, B, C
2. A, C
3. B, D
4. D only
5. All of the above
Answer: 1
6. Which of the following substances is most likely to cause systemic alkalosis?
1. Sodium bicarbonate
2. Methylcellulose
3. Sodium phosphate
4. Castor oil
5. Mineral oil
Answer: 4
7. Saline cathartics, such as sodium sulfate or magnesium sulfate:
1. are safe in patients with renal failure
2. are readily absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
3. are slower acting than bulk-forming laxatives
4. act by increasing intestinal volume, hence stimulating peristaltic action
5. lower the surface tension of the feces to facilitate fecal hydration

Answer: 5
8. Adverse effect(s) of laxatives:
1. Electrolyte disturbances (hypernatremia, hypokalemia)
2. Dehydration
3. spastic colitis with stimulant laxatives
4. gastrointestinal obstruction with bulk forming agents
5. All of the above
Answer: 5
9. In esophagitis , elevation of the head of the bed, abstinence from ethanol and
Tobacco, and small frequent meals are all useful adjunctive therapeutic measures
Other useful therapy may include all of the following EXCEPT:
1. omeprazole
2. metoclopramide
3. bethanechol
4. cimetidine
5. amitriptyline
Answer: 2
10. Drug which exerts anti-peptic ulcer effects through histamine-2 receptor
Antagonism:
1. sucralfate
2. ranitidine
3. metoclopramide
4. omeprazole
5. misoprostol
Answer: 5
11. The substance which is principally an emollient laxative is:
1. bran
2. methylcellulose
3. magnesium hydroxide
4. phenolphthalein
5. mineral oil
Answer: 3
12. Laxatives may aid in the treatment of portal systemic encephalopathy by:
1. increasing stool pH
2. increasing coliform bacteria
3. decreasing protein contact time with GI mucosa
4. All of the above
5. 1,3
Answer: 5
13. Agents of potential use in peptic ulcer disease include:
1. muscarinic antagonists
2. proton pump inhibitors
3. antacids
4. prostaglandins
5. All of the above
Answer: 5
14. The physician must always be aware of possible drug interactions. Aluminum
hydroxide antacids tend to interfere with the gastrointestinal absorption of:
1. cephalexin
2. penicillin G
3. erythromycin
4. chloramphenicol
5. tetracycline
Answer: 4
15. Prostaglandins E2 inhibit the secretion of gastric acid and stimulate the
secretion of mucus. One adverse effect limiting the wide use of
prostaglandins for gastric disease is:
1. headache
2. thrombocytopenia
3. gynecomastia
4. diarrhea
5. seizures
Answer: 3
16. An agent which promotes defecation without increasing peristalsis is:
1. castor oil
2. phenolphthalein
3. docusate sodium
4. cascara
5. milk of magnesia
Answer: 4
17. Cimetidine reduces the clearance of all of the following EXCEPT:
1. theophylline
2. phenytoin
3. warfarin
4. digoxin
5. quinidine
 Answer: 5
18. The basic approach to the patient with either acute or chronic hepatic
encephalopathy is aimed at reducing the ammonia load presented to the central
nervous system. Elimination of protein from the diet, cathartics, enemas,
neomycin and lactulose (a disaccharide) have been used to accomplish this
goal. Correct statements regarding the mechanism of action of lactulose
include:
1. reduced fecal Ph by the breakdown products of lactulose leads to reduced
ammonia absorption via non-ionic diffusion
2. the decreased fecal pH increases bacterial assimilation of ammonia
3. lactulose induces an osmotic diarrhea which diminishes fecal stasis and
reduces nitrogenous substrates
4. All of the above
5. 1,3
Answer: 5
19. Antacids having a relatively non-systemic effect include:
1. aluminum hydroxide
2. sodium bicarbonate
3. calcium carbonate
4. All of the above
5. 1 and 3
Answer: 4
20. Which of the following substances has its major activity as an stimulant
cathartic?
1. sodium bicarbonate
2. methylcellulose
3. sodium citrate
4. castor oil
5. mineral oil
Answer: 3
21. One mechanism to reduce gastric acid secretion is by blocking the H+-Na+
ATPase pump in the parietal cell. One drug that has this pharmacologic action
is:
1. misoprostol
2. pirenzepine
3. omeprazole
4. serotonin
5. isoniazid
Answer: 1
22. The amount of sodium, phosphate or magnesium contained in an antacid should be
assessed when selecting an antacid for patients with:
A. renal insufficiency
B. congestive heart failure
C. ascites
D. peptic ulcer disease
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
Answer: 3
23. The concomitant administration of calcium and/or magnesium antacids to
patients receiving one of the tetracycline drugs may have which of the
following effects upon the action of the tetracycline:
1. enhances the action
2. causes no significant change
3. decreases the action
4. increases toxicity
5. suppresses hypersensitivity reactions
Answer: 2
24. Pharmacologic effects of antacids include:
A. increase gastric pH
B. reversible inactivation of pepsin at pH > 6
C. increase or decrease gastric motor activity
D. decrease lower esophageal pressure
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above.


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Pharmacokinetics :Few More questions


Pharmacokinetics : Few questions



You Guys Must be wondering, Why I am not posting all questions at once . Actually , Basic Idea  is to make you guys study every day at least 2-3 hours .This is my formula , if you  spent about 2-3 hours every day ,  You will pass this exam for sure  . Just Find out the answers for these questions and leave a comment  Once again please  confirm the answers with a authentic source

1. Correct statements about bioavailability include:
A. pertains to the rate and extent of drug absorption
B. for two dosage forms of a drug to be considered equally
bioavailable, the measured AUC for each drug must be equal
C. for two dosage forms of a drug to be therapeutically equivalent
They must be equally bioavailable
D. equally bioavailable dosage forms may not necessarily be
Bioequivalent
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All are correct
 correct answer: 4
2. Correct statements pertaining to first-order elimination kinetics include:
A. a constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit of time
B. this pattern of drug elimination is most likely when elimination
Pathways are saturated
C. clearance will vary as blood concentrations change
D. for drugs following this elimination pattern, doubling the rate of
Administration will yield a doubling of serum or plasma
Concentration at steady-state
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All are correct
answer: 5 category
3. Correct statements pertaining to protein-binding include:
A. acidic drugs are most likely to be bound to albumin
B. the degree to which a drug is protein-bound in plasma will affect
Its apparent volume of distribution
C. basic drugs are most likely to be bound to alpha 1-acid
Glycoprotein
D. for highly protein-bound drugs, decreasing the extent of
Protein-binding in plasma will enhance the rate of glomerular
Filtration
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All are Correct
 answer: 3 category: Pharmacokinetics
4. Correct statements pertaining to elimination half-life include:
A. elimination half-life always increases as clearance decreases
B. knowledge of a drug's elimination half-life allows one to estimate
The time necessary for steady-state to be reached after starting
Therapy
C. for drugs that follow first-order elimination kinetics, increasing
Drug dosage will increase the elimination half-life
D. elimination half-life is the time required for the amount of drug
In the body to be reduced by 50%
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All are correct
Answer: 1
5. Phase II (synthetic) reactions include:
A. glucuronidation
B. N-acetylation
C. O-methylation
D. hydrolysis
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All are correct
answer: 4
6. Metabolic pathways which are subject to induction and inhibition by some
Drugs include:
A. sulfate conjugation
B. acetylating
C. glycine conjugation
D. oxidation
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All are correct
 answer: 5
7. Some drugs are hepatic ally metabolized and possess a high extraction ratio.
Correct statements concerning these drugs include:
A. these drugs are subject to extensive first-pass metabolism
B. inducing the hepatic microtonal enzyme system is not likely to
Alter clearance substantially
C. clearance of these drugs is likely to be reduced in patients with
Congestive heart failure
D. administration of these drugs parent rally will increase
Bioavailability
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All are correct
answer: 2
8. J.B. is 55 KG, 38-year-old male smoker with acute exacerbation of COPD who is
started on theophylline in the ER. A loading dose of 300 mg is administered
over 30 minutes. Blood samples obtained 3 hours and 6 hours after the loading
dose revealed serum concentrations of 12.0 mg/L and 8.1 mg/L, respectively.
The elimination half-life of theophylline in this patient is:
1. 0.53 hours
2. 5.33 hours
3. 3.50 hours
4. 6.00 hours
5. 8.03 hours
Answer: 4
9. Gentamicin pharmacokinetics can be described using a 1 compartment model,
undergoes first order metabolism, and is entirely cleared from the body
unchanged by the kidneys. If a patient with a creatine clearance of 30 ml/min
is given gentamicin, correct statements include:
1. compared to an identical person with normal renal function (125 ml/min)
this patient's loading dose should be reduced by 75%
2. if this patient receives the same loading dose as an identical person
with normal renal function, this patient's blood concentration will be
approximately 4 times higher
3. a loading dose should not be given to individuals who will clear a drug
from their body more slowly than a normal population
4. this patient should receive the same loading dose of gentamicin as an
Individual with normal renal function
Answer: 1
10. Correct statements pertaining to elimination half-life include:
A. if total body clearance of drug A remains constant and the volume
of drug A distribution is doubled, elimination half-life is
Increased
B. if total body clearance of drug A is doubled and drug A volume of
Distribution remains constant, elimination half-life is reduced
C. if a reduction in total body clearance of drug A is accompanied by
a corresponding reduction in drug A volume of distribution,
Elimination half-life will remain unchanged
D. if a reduction in total body clearance of drug A is accompanied by
an increase in drug A volume of distribution, elimination half-
life will remain unchanged
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All are correct
Answer 3


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Few More questions 2

Please Make sure that these questions are practice purpose only and  check answers with authenticated sources


Few More questions  2


1. Proposed cellular mechanisms of theophylline's action include:
A. translocation of intracellular calcium
B. those mediated by increasing accumulation of intracellular cyclic AMP
C. those mediated by blockade of receptors for adenosine
D. those mediated by xanthine oxidase inhibition
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
Answer: 2 
2. Drugs that may decrease theophylline clearance include:
A. cimetidinE
B. ranitidine
C. ciprofloxacin
D. phenytoin
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above
 answer: 5
3. Theophylline clearance may be reduced by:
1. phenobarbital
2. warfarin
3. tobacco smoking
4. phenytoin
5. ciprofloxacin
 answer: 5 
4. Factors which are important to consider in selecting a maintenance dose of
theophylline in a patient include all of the following EXCEPT:
1. smoking history
2. concomitant medication administration
3. presence of congestive heart failure or cor pulmonale
4. presence of hepatic failure
5. presence of renal insufficiency
answer: 5 
5. Manifestations of theophylline toxicity may include all of the following
EXCEPT:
1. tremors
2. seizures
3. tachyarrhythmias
4. vomiting
5. hyperkalemia
answer: 2
6. In the case of an oral overdose of theophylline, clearance may be enhanced by:
1. induction of emesis
2. oral pulse dose charcoal
3. administration of cimetidine
4. lavage of nasogastric contents
5. forced diuresis
answer: 4 
7. Regarding its actions, cromolyn is best described as:
1. bronchodilator
2. anticholinergic
3. beta agonist
4. inhibitor of mast cell degranulation
5. glucocorticoid
Answer: 4 
8. Beta-2 selective adrenergic agonists include all EXCEPT:
1. terbutaline
2. albuterol
3. metaproterenol
4. isoproterenol
5. pirbuterol
Answer: 5 
9. Adverse effects of beta-2 adrenergic bronchodilators include all of the
following EXCEPT:
1. nervousness
2. headache
3. tachycardia
4. tremulousness
5. lethargy
Answer: 4 
10. Which of the following work through cholinergic receptor antagonism?
1. isoetharine
2. cromolyn
3. ephedrine
4. ipratropium
5. salmeterol
Answer: 1 
11. Which of the following pharmacologic agents antagonize adenosine?
1. theophylline
2. glucocorticoids
3. cromolyn sodium
4. propranolol
5. terbutaline
Answer: 2 
12. Theophylline, ethacrynic acid, and furosemide:
1. interfere with active renal tubular reabsorption of sodium
2. increase urine volume
3. are not effective in the treatment of congestive heart failure
4. decrease excretion of sodium in the uriNE
5. may precipitate in renal tubules and cause acute angiospastic necrosis
Answer: 4
13. An 81-year-old female with arteriosclerotic heart disease and pulmonary
emphysema was found to have significant bronchospasm. Her physician prescribed
theophylline 400 mg every 12 hours. All of the following toxicities may be
observed EXCEPT:
1. cardiac arrhythmias
2. nausea and vomiting
3. agitation
4. sodium and water retention
5. tremulousness
Answer: 5 
14. When comparing the relative adrenergic effects of the following drugs, the one
which would have the least 2 (bronchodilatation) effect at normal doses is:
1. terbutaline
2. epinephrine
3. isoproterenol
4. isoetharine
5. norepinephrine

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